Example of an examination:

30 REPRESENTATIVE TEST QUESTIONS FROM PREVIOUS EXAMINATIONS
Including answers, in each question only one answer is correct
1 Which of the following bone marrow diseases is considered a chronic myeloproliferative disorder
a
b
c
d
e
Chronic myelomonocytic leukaemia
Essential thrombocythaemia
Hypocellular myelodysplastic syndrome
Juvenile chronic myeloid leukaemia
Refractory anaemia with excess of blasts in transformation
2 What is usually the first symptom of Alport’s syndrome
a
b
c
d
e
Deafness
Ocular abnormalities
Haematuria
Oedema
Olfactory nerve atrophy
3 The initial localisation of amyloid in amyloidosis in the glomerulus is usually
a
b
c
d
e
Subendothelial
Subepithelial
Mesangial
Subendothelial and subepithelial
All of these
4 Flow through a stenosed artery is not significantly affected until the lumen is reduced by:
a
b
c
d
e
40-50%
50-60%
60-70%
70-80%
80-90%
5 Which of the following lysosomal storage diseases is caused by a deficiency of the enzyme
b-glucocerebrosidase:
a
b
c
d
e
Pompe’s disease
Tay-Sachs disease
Gaucher’s disease
Niemann-Pick’s disease
Fucosidosis
6 Which one of the following micro-organisms does not belong to the protozoa:
a
b
c
d
e
Giardia lamblia
Isospora belli
Trichomonas vaginais
Plasmodium malariae
Histoplasma capsulatum
7 The mucicarmine staining is especially helpful in identifying:
a
b
c
d
e
Mycobacteria
Cryptococci
Leishmania
Protozoa
Nocardia
8 Which statement about invasive carcinoma of the bladder is not true:
a
b
cd
e
It is more common in males than in females
Schistosoma haematobium infections are an established risk factor
For prognosis, the histological pattern and the histological grade of the tumour are as important
as the stage when first diagnosed.
Most grade-I transitional cell carcinomas are diploid
Most grade-II and III transitional cell carcinomas are aneuploid
9 Which ovarian tumour is most common in women younger than 25 years
a
b
c
d
e
Cystic teratoma
Endodermal sinus tumour
Choriocarcinoma
Dysgerminoma
Granulosa cell tumour
10 Which of the following lesions does not have a radial growth phase
a
b
c
d
e
Superficial spreading melanoma
Lentigo malignant melanoma
Acral lentiginous melanoma
Nodular melanoma
Spindle cell melanoma
11 Which of the following skin diseases may occur in infectious hepatitis
a
b
c
d
e
Contact dermatitis
Cutaneous necrotizing vasculitis
Dermatitis herpetiformis
Sarcoidosis
Epidermolysis bullosa
12 Which one of the following lesions shows the highest incidence in patients with solid organ
transplants
a
b
c
d
e
Basal cell carcinoma
Squamous cell carcinoma
Kaposi’s sarcoma
Mycosis fungoides
Malignant lymphoma
13 Which one of the following disorders is not a chronic obstructive pulmonary disorder
a
b
c
d
e
Chronic bronchitis
Bronchiectasis
Asthma
Emphysema
Interstitial fibrosis
14 Both vimentin and EMA show commonly positive immunoreactions in:
a
b
c
d
e
Astrocytoma
Oligodendroglioma
Craniopharyngioma
Meningioma
Medulloblastoma
15 All of the following are elements of the tetrad of Fallot except
a
b
c
d
e
Coarctation of aorta
Dextraposition and over-riding of the aorta
Interventricular septal defect
Right ventricular hypertrophy
Pulmonary stenosis
16 Convincingly positive immunoreactivity for human papilloma virus (HPV) is
a
b
c
d
e
Exclusively cytoplasmic
Cytoplasmic and nuclear
Exclusively paranuclear
Exclusively submembranous
Exclusively nuclear
17 Which of the following tumours is frequently associated with tuberous sclerosis
a
b
c
d
e
erebellar haemangioblastoma
Subependymal giant cell astrocytoma
Renal cell carcinoma
Neurofibromatosis
Angiomyolipoma of the kidney
18 The endometrial glands of a patient on oral contraceptives are characterized by showing
a
b
c
d
e
Proliferation with stratification of epithelial cells
Atrophy
Hypersecretory change
No characteristic histological pattern
Large and hyperchromatic nuclei
19 Telomerase is an important enzyme in cell division. Which statement about telomerase is true:
a
b
c
d
e
It enables full replication of chromosomal telomeres during mitosis
It is present in all normal nucleated cells.
When absent from neoplastic cells, it results in their immortalisation
It is lost from cells during natural ageing, thus stopping their replication
It is a mitochondrial enzyme
20 Which statement about apoptosis is false:
a
b
c
d
e
It is the principal mode of cell death in ‘peacemeal necrosis’ of the liver
It is inhibited by the expression of bcl-2
It is triggered by an influx of calcium ions
It is responsible for Kamino bodies in Spitz naevi
It occurs in erythroblasts after their release from the bone marrow
21 Which statement about bullous disorders of the skin is not true:
a
b
c
d
e
A lack of inflammatory cell infiltration is typical of porphyria
Subepidermal bullae are characteristic of pemphigus vulgaris
IgA deposition at the dermo-epidermal junction occurs in dermatitis herpetiformis
Variants of epidermolysis bullosa can be distinguished by electron microscopy
Dermal eosinophils are most frequent in bullous pemphigoid
22 Which of the following genes is a tumour suppressor gene (anti-oncogene)
a
b
c
d
e
ras
neu
DCC
abl
ret
23 Which of the following segments of the digestive tract is most frequently involved in ulcerative colitis.
a
b
c
d
e
Caecum
Ascending colon
Transverse colon
Descending colon
Rectum
24 Naevus flammeus is a feature of
a
b
c
d
e
Tuberous sclerosis
Von Hippel-Lindau disease
Sturge-Weber disease
Neurocutaneous melanosis
None of the above
25 Multiple endocrine neoplasia type I (MEN I) involves:
a
b
c
d
e
Pituitary, pancreas, parathyroids
Pituitary, adrenals, thyroid
Pancreas, adrenals, parathyroids
Adrenals, gonads, parathyroid
Parathyroids, thyroid, gonads
26 The ovarian tumour most commonly associated with the Peutz-Jeghers syndrome is:
a
b
c
d
e
Clear cell carcinoma
Juvenile granulosa cell tumour
Sex cord tumour with annular tubules
Steroid cell tumour
Endometrioid adenofibroma
27 The typical immunophenotype of desmoplastic melanoma is:
a
b
c
d
e
Positivity for S-100 protein and positivity for HMB45
Positivity for S-100 protein and negative for HMB45
Negative for S-100 protein and positivity for HMB45
Negative for S-100 protein and negative for HMB45
Positivity for keratins
28 Free radicals play a very important role in the pathogenesis of one of the following pathological
processes
a
b
c
d
e
Diffuse alveolar damage
Sarcoidosis
Hypersensitivity pneumonitis
Tuberculosis
Chronic bronchitis
29 In which of the following diseases does the PRAD-1 (Cyclin D) gene play a very specific role in
pathogenesis
a
b
c
d
e
Mantle cell lymphoma
Chronic myeloid leukemia
Mycosis fungoides
Lymphomatoid papulosis
Polycythemia vera
30 Partial molar pregnancies in contrast to complete moles
a
b
c
d
e
Generally contain maternal and paternal chromosomes
Show circumferential trophoblastic hyperplasia
Are generally not associated with some fetal development.
May be complicated by gestational choriocarcinoma in 25% of cases
Are usually diploïd

Answers:
1 .B 6.E 11.B 16.E 21.B 26. C2.C 7.B 12.B 17.B 22.C 27.B3.C 8.C 13.E 18.B 23.E 28.A4.D 9.A 14.D 19.A 24.C 29.A5.C 10.D 15.A 20.C 25.A 30.A

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